Friday, June 8, 2007

Question 61

Which of the following is a correct statement concerning IPv6?

a) To show that IPv6 packets will be encapsulated in IPv4, the IPv6 protocol identifier is specified as the payload type.
b) The IP address size is expanded to 128 bits and a checksum is used for detecting errors in header information.
c) The header information has nothing equivalent to TTL (time to live) supported by IPv4, and there are no limits to the number of gateways through which data pass.
d) The adjacent node’s address is used as the loop back address, and it can be used for identifying a problem in case of an error.


Question 62

Which of the following protocols, as a higher level protocol of IP, supports connectionless datagram communication without the functions for increasing reliability such as acknowledgement or order control.

b) PPP
c) TCP
d) UDP


Question 63

Which of the following protocols is used for transmitting e-mails between mail servers on the Internet?

b) POP


Question 64

Of the following statements concerning network switching systems, which statement applies to the frame relay method?

a) 53-byte fixed-length frames are used.
b) Variable-length frames are used and transmission error control within the network is simplified.
c) A store-and-forward system performs transmission error control including retrasmission between exchanges within the network.
d) When terminals are connected using the frame relay protocol, they can communicate using protocols other than the frame relay protocol.


Question 65

In a system with the network configuration show below, the same size message data was sent and received between the host computer and two terminals. The turnaround time required for sending and receiving data between the host computer and terminal A was 450 milliseconds, and 700 milliseconds for terminal B. When the size of upload and download messages and the processing time required by the host computer for both terminals A and B is the same, how many milliseconds does it take for one-way transmission from terminal B to the host computer? Here, the turnaround time means the period of time beginning when the terminal starts sending data online and ending when the response data has been completely received by the terminal. The transmission time depends only on the line speed.

a) 100
b) 150
c) 200
d) 250


Question 66

Which of the following is a correct statement concerning 100BASE-T?

a) The same CSMA/CD media access method as 10BASE-T is used.
b) Only four pairs of STP cables are available as media. UTP cables cannot be used.
c) The same Manchester Coding Method as 10BASE-T is used as the encoding method.
d) The frame structure and the error detection system are different from those 10BASE-T.


Question 67

Of the following statements concerning wiring types for connecting nodes (control units, terminals, etc.) on a LAN, which statement describes bus-type wiring?

a) All nodes are connected to a cable forming a ring.
b) All nodes are connected to the controlling node located at the center.
c) Several nodes are connected to the center node. Other nodes are further connected to each of the nodes, which is connected to the center node.
d) All nodes are connected to a single cable such as a coaxial cable.


Question 68

Which of the following is a correct statement concerning the NAT function of a router for connecting to the internet?

a) This function allows a fast display of the contents of a Web server whose IP address was stored in a cache when it was accessed previously.
b) This function detects specific bit patterns from IP packets during transmission.
c) This function allows only IP packets to be sent to specific terminals to pass.
d) This function performs two-way conversion between the private IP address and the global IP address.


Question 69

The chart below shows the output from of a transaction detail report by sales office and by customer. Of the related database tables obtained by this form, which table is in third normal form? Here, trasaction numbers are serial numbers by customer and discounts are calculated by multiplying the discount rate by product and the unit price.

a) Customer (Customer_number, Customer_name, Customer_business_category_code, Business-category_name)
b) Product (Product_code, Product_name, Unit_price, Discount_rate)
c) Transaction (Custome_number, Total_amount, Total_discount, Consumption_tax, Same-day_transaction_amount)
d) Transaction details (Transaction_number, Product_code, Qty, Amount)


Question 70

The following data model was created as part of a library reservation system. Which of the statements below is correct? Here, a pair of 1 and an asterisk shows the one-to-many cardinality and the underlined attributes in the table are primary keys.

[Data Model of Reservation System]

User (User_ID, User_ name, Address)
Reservation (User_ID, Book_title_ID, Reservation_date)
Book_title (Book_title_ID, Category_code, Book_name, Author)
Book-stocked (Book_stock_ID, Book_title_ID, Purchase_date, Lending_count)

a) The cardinality between the book_title entity and the book_stocked entity is opposite.
b) It is redundant to categorize the book_title entity and the book_stocked entity separately.
c) The book_title entity is an abstract entity without a physical entity.
d) The book stocked to be lent out can be decided at the time of reservation.


Question 71

Which of the SQL statements below will retrieve persons of the same name from an “Employee” table?


Employee number Name Date of birth Department
0001 Kenji Arai 1950-02-04 Sales Department
0002 Taro Suzuki 1955-03-13 Administration Department
0003 Hiroshi Sato 1961-07-11 Technical Department
0004 Hiroshi Tanaka 1958-01-24 Planning Department
0005 Taro Suzuki 1948-11-09 Sales Department

b) SELECT Name, COUNT (*) FROM Employee GROUP BY Name
c) SELECT Name FROM Employee GROUP BY Name HAVING COUNT (*) > 1
d) SELECT Name FROM Employee WHERE Name = Name


Question 72

Which of the following is a correct statement concerning the process privileges for objects in SQL?

a) There are three types of privileges: INSERT, DELETE, and UPDATE.
b) The privileges apply only to base tables, not to views.
c) The REVOKE statement revokes privileges.
d) The COMMIT statement grants privileges.


Question 73

Which of the following is a correct statement concerning the operation of a lock used for concurrent control of transactions?

a) A request for a shared lock will be granted if it is made while a shared lock is used.
b) A request for an exclusive lock will be granted if it is made while a shared lock is used.
c) A request for a shared lock will be granted if it is made while an exclusive lock is used
d) A request for an exclusive lock will be granted if it is made while an exclusive lock is used


Question 74

Which of the following is a correct statement concerning access to a database from an application program that runs the control of a TP monitor?

a) If the SQL search result is “No Data Found,” DBMS rollback will be executed.
b) An application program issues a commit and rollback instruction to a TP monitor, and the TP monitor issues instructions to DBMS.
c) An application program determines whether to commit or roll back its transaction after confirming the issuance of a commit or rollback instruction from another application program running under the control of a TP monitor.
d) An application program cannot issue an instruction to start a transaction. A TP monitor determines where to start a transaction.


Question 75

Which statement correctly describes the atomicity in ACID characteristics of a transaction?

a) A consistent state of the database
b) Once a transaction is completed normally, the updated results are not lost even if a failure has occurred.
c) A transaction must end with its process having been completely performed or with its process having not been performed at all.
d) The result of multiple transactions executed concurrently is the same as when they are executed serially.


Question 76

Which of the following is a correct statement concerning a cryptography system?

a) Because common key cryptography uses different keys for both the sender and receiver, it ensures a high level of confidentiality.
b) Common key cryptography uses different keys for each sender and receiver, key management will become difficult as the number of senders and receivers increases.
c) When encrypting messages using public key cryptography , key management become easier by disclosing a decryption key
d) In the case of public key cryptography , the key used for signatures can be disclosed.


Question 77

Which of the following is a correct statement concerning digital signature used for e-mails?

a) Digital signature cannot prevent an alteration of e-mail contents, but it can detect an alteration.
b) Digital signature can prevent an alteration of e-mail contents, but does not guarantee the confidentiality.
c) Digital signature guarantees the confidentiality of e-mail contents, but cannot prevent an alteration.
d) Digital signature guarantees the confidentiality of e-mail contents, and restores altered e-mail contents as well.


Question 78

Which of the following is a correct statement concerning maintaining integrity as a factor in information security for a payroll system?

a) A system operator changes the system configuration to reduce the processing time of the payroll system.
b) Pay statements are printed without fail by payday.
c) Unauthorized employees cannot rewrite salary data.
d) Unauthorized employees cannot read salary data


Question 79

The framework for building a security management system specified in BS 7799-2 consists of steps through below. What is the correct order of these steps?

maru1.png Select and/or add management objectives and management measures to be implemented.
maru2.png Determine the scope of the information security management system.
maru3.png Create an implementation declaration.
maru4.png Define security policies.
maru5.png Conduct a risk assessment.
maru6.pngManage risks

a) maru3.pngmaru4.pngmaru2.pngmaru6.pngmaru5.pngmaru1.png
b) maru3.pngmaru4.pngmaru5.pngmaru6.pngmaru1.pngmaru2.png
c) maru4.pngmaru2.pngmaru1.pngmaru6.pngmaru5.pngmaru3.png
d) maru4.pngmaru2.pngmaru5.pngmaru6.pngmaru1.pngmaru3.png


Question 80

Which of the following statements correctly defines UCS-2 (Unicode)?

a) It is a code system mainly used under UNIX. It uses a single byte to represent an alphanumeric character and two bytes to represent a Chinese character.
b) It is a code system currently used in many personal computers. It uses a single byte to represent an alphanumeric character and two bytes to represent a Chinese character.
c) It is a code system that uses a single byte to represent all characters
d) It is a code system adaptable to coded character sets in many countries. It uses two bytes to represent all characters.


Thursday, June 7, 2007

Question 1

Which of the following is the decimal fractional number corresponding to a hexadecimal number containing fraction 3A.5C?

a) 939/16
b) 3735/64
c) 14939/256
d) 14941/256


Question 2

Which of the following is a correct description of radix conversion?

a) A finite fraction in the binary representation is always a finite fraction in a decimal representation.
b) A finite fraction in the octal representation is not necessarily a finite fraction in the binary representation.
c) A finite fraction in the octal representation is not necessarily a finite fraction in the decimal representation.
d) A finite fraction in the decimal representation is always a finite fraction in the octal representation.


Question 3

In case a negative number is represented as two’s complement, which of the following is an appropriate method for obtaining a numerical value whose absolute value is equal, but whose sign is different? In this example, the sign (0 for positive, 1 for negative) is the most significant bit.

a) Invert each bit and add 1 to the result.
b) Invert each bit and add 2 to the result.
c) Invert each bit.
d) Change the sign bit to 1.


Question 4

The results of arithmetic operations on numerical value A, which has 6 significant digits, and numerical value B, which has two significant digits, were rounded off. Which of the following is correct as an evaluation of the significant digits in the calculation results?

a) When A+B is performed, the result has six significant digits.
b) When A-B is performed, the result has six significant digits.
c) When A×B is performed, the result has two significant digits.
d) When A÷B is performed, the result has three significant digits.


Question 5

How many multiplications are performed when the formula Y = X5+aX4+bX3+cX2+dX+e is changed so as to minimize the number of calculations?

a) 4
b) 5
c) 8
d) 9


Question 6

At a certain factory, the same products are manufactured on two independent lines A and B. Line A manufactures 60% of all the products, and line B manufactures 40%. Of the products manufactured on line A, 2% are defective, and of the products manufactured on line B, 1% are defective. When a single product manufactured at this factory was selected randomly, it turned out that this product was defective. What is the probability (percentage) that this product was manufactured on line A?

a) 25
b) 40
c) 60
d) 75


Question 7

Which of the following is the logical circuit that obtains the same results as

_ _ _ _
A .B + A .B + A. B

? In this example, swh14sa07a.png denotes a logical product (AND); swh14sa07b.png denotes a logical sum (OR); swh14sa07c.pngdenotes a negative AND (NAND); and swh14sa07d.png denotes a negative logical sum (NOR).

a) swh14sa07e.png
b) swh14sa07f.png
c) swh14sa07g.png
d) swh14sa07h.png


Question 8

A code X1X2X3X4X5X6X7 which consists of information bits X1X2X3X4 and redundant bits X5X6X7 satisfying

( X1+X2+X3+X5 ) mod 2 = 0
( X1+X2+X4+X6 ) mod 2 = 0
( X2+X3+X4+X7 ) mod 2 = 0
is transmitted.

If the received code Y1Y2Y3Y4Y5Y6Y7 differs from the transmitted code by no more than one bit, then it is possible to determine the correct information bits X1X2X3X4 according to whether or not each of the following becomes zero:

( Y1+Y2+Y3+Y5 ) mod 2 = 0
( Y1+Y2+Y4+Y6 ) mod 2 = 0
( Y2+Y3+Y4+Y7 ) mod 2 = 0

If Y1Y2Y3Y4Y5Y6Y7 = 1100010,
which of the following indicates the correct information bits? In this example, a mod b denotes the remainder when a is divided by b

a) 0100
b) 1000
c) 1100
d) 1101


Question 9

Which of the following results is obtained when seven integers 13, 17, 15,8, 3, 10 and 20 are inserted in this sequence in an empty binary search tree, after which two integers 8 and 3 are removed in this sequence from this binary search tree?

a) swh14sa09a.png b)swh14sa09b1.png
c) swh14sa09c1.png d) swh14sa09d.png


Question 10

Which of the following queues has the shortest processing time for additions to and removals from the queue? In this example, the number of queue entries is variable, and the arrows in the diagrams denote the pointer indications



Question 11

In the graph below, the shortest distance from point A to each point is determined using the Dijkstra method. Which of the following represents the order in which the distances from point A to points B, C, and D are determined? In this example, the numbers denote the respective distances.


a) B, C, D
b) B, D, C
c) D, B, C
d) D, C, B


Question 12

Which of the following is the best representation of the trend obtained by a graph expression of the relationship between the number of pieces of data and sorting time for sorting according to the selection method?


Question 13

The flowchart below presents the tasks involved in binary number multiplication through repeated shift operations and additions. Which of the following answers is the correct combination of processes a and b in this flowchart? In this example, multipliers and
multiplicands are expressed as 16 bits without signs. X, Y and Z are 32-bit registers, and logical shifting is used for shifting.


a b
a) Least significant bit in Y Shift X one bit to the left and Y one bit to
the right.
b) Least significant bit in Y Shift X one bit to the right and Y one bit
to the left.
c) Most significant bit in Y Shift X one bit to the left and Y one bit to
the right.
d) Most significant bit in Y Shift X one bit to the right and Y one bit to
the left.


Question 14

There exists a function F(x, y) defined as shown below with respect to integers x, y (x>y ≧ 0). What is the value of F(1170, 231)? In this example,x mod y is the remainder when x is divided by y.

swh14sa14a.png x(When y = 0)
 F(x,y) =

F(y,x mod y)(When y > 0)

a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) 7


Question 15

Which of the following is the business process most suitable for study using game theory?

a) Determining the number of entry gates at an event arena.
b) Analysis of factors related to hot-selling products.
c) Establishment of a sales strategy in a region where there are competitors.
d) Demand projection and establishment of a profit plan for a newly developed product.


Question 16

Which of the following is a multiprocessor processing mode used by many of today’s commercial super-parallel computers, in which instructions that vary from processor to processor are executed in parallel?



Question 17

Which of the following is suitable as a description of the microprogramming control method?

a) It is used on many RISC processors.
b) Functions can be added and changed just by making microprogram changes, so it is easy to add and change instructions.
c) Like ordinary programs, microprograms are stored in main memory, and read and used by processors.
d) Machine instruction processing is faster than in the case of the wired logic method.


Question 18

Which of the following is suitable as a description of interrupts?

a) When a CPU receives an interrupt, it interrupts the program being executed and stores information required for resuming the program in a specific area on the hard disk.
b) Application programs must always detect occurrences of interrupts.
c) A notification of the completion of an operation from an input/output device is classified as an internal interrupt.
d) The causes of individual interrupts are given priorities for allowing occurrences of multiple interrupts.


Question 19

In a personal computer operating with a 200 MHz clock frequency, if the cache access time is 10 nanoseconds, the main memory access time is 70 nanoseconds, and the cache hit rate is 90%, what is the average number of clock cycles required for memory access?

a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16


Question 20

Which of the magnetic disk devices A, B, C and D with the specifications shown in the table has the shortest time for accessing 50 Kbytes recorded on a single track? In this example, it is assumed that the access time affected by elements other than the parameters shown in the table can be ignored.

Disk rpms(revolutions per minute) Average seek time (milliseconds) Average track capacity (KBytes) Data transfer rate to and from computer (MBps)
a) 5,000 8 100 10
b) 5,000 10 200 5
c) 10,000 8 100 5
d) 10,000 10 100 5

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D


Question 21

Which of the following is suitable as a description of the characteristics of MO?

a) Data is recorded by irradiating laser light on a recording medium covered with a magnetized recording film, thereby heating it and simultaneously changing the direction of magnetization.
b) Data is recorded on a thin plastic disk with a magnetic coating simply by changing the magnetization polarity.
c) Data is recorded by a combination of extremely small depressed areas called pits, and flat regions called lands which are between the pits.
d) Data is recorded using phase changes of a recording film being crystallized and uncrystallized by irradiating a laser light.


Question 22

Which of the following is a standard bus specification for personal computers, in which the address bus width is 32 bits and the data bus width is 32/64 bits?

a) ATA
b) CardBus
c) ISA
d) PCI


Question 23

Which of the following is suitable as a description of supercomputers?

a) The number of bits that can be handled at the same time by the accumulator inside the processor is extremely large, which improves character string processing performance.
b) Large-capacity hard disk devices and virtual storage technology are used to realize an extremely large memory capacity and improve performance.
c) Hardware circuits that are specialized for specific application fields are separately provided and combined according to their purposes in order to improve performance.
d) Performance is improved by joining together several to 10-odd processors containing vector instructions, or several hundreds to several thousands of microprocessors.


Question 24

In a virtual storage system using the paging method, sometimes the frequency of page replacements increases and the system’s processing capability declines abruptly. What is this type of phenomenon called?

a) Slashing
b) Swap-out
c) Fragmentation
d) Page out


Question 25

In a virtual storage system in which the real memory space usable by a program is 3 pages, if a program with a size of 6 pages is executed, how many times will page faults occur? In this example, the page reading sequence during program execution is 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 0, 2, 4, 3, 1, 4, 5. The paging method is LRU (Least Recently Used), and in the initial state, none of the pages has been read into the real memory.

a) 9
b) 10
c) 11
d) 12


Question 26

When a program was partitioned into tasks, multiple tasks entered into wait status under the same condition. At this time, which of the following inter-task synchronous control methods can simultaneously eliminate, from another task, all of the wait states of the tasks in which the condition occurred?

a) Event flag
b) Semaphore
c) Mailbox
d) Rendezvous


Question 27

Which of the following is suitable as a description of the round-robin (RR) task scheduling method?

a) CPU resources are allocated at fixed time intervals in accordance with priorities of the individual tasks.
b) At fixed time intervals, a timer interrupt occurs, causing a forced transfer of control to the first task in the executable queue.
c) This method is suitable for real-time systems in which tasks must be started immediately when an interrupt event occurs.
d) This method is not suitable for operating systems designed for multiple users.


Question 28

There exist processes A, B, C and D which occupy resources X, Y and Z and execute processing. As processing progresses, each process occupies resources in the sequence of values shown in the table below. When execution ends, the three resources are released all together. Which of the following processes has a possibility of creating a deadlock with process A?

Process name Sequence in which resources are occupied
Resource X Resource Y Resource Z
Process A 1 2 3
Process B 1 2 1
Process C 2 3 1
Process D 1 2 3

a) Processes B and C
b) Processes B, C, and D
c) Process B only
d) Process C only


Question 29

When a task enters executing status, ready status, or wait status, which of the following is suitable as a change in statuses when a task in executing status has its execution interrupted by another task due to preemption, up to the time that it again enters executing status?

a) Executing status → Ready status → Executing status
b) Executing status → Ready status → Wait status → Executing status
c) Executing status → Wait status → Ready status → Executing status
d) Executing status → Wait status → Executing status


Question 30

When storage areas are dynamically allocated and released repeatedly, sometimes storage areas which cannot be accessed from anywhere occur. Which of the following is a process that makes such storage areas usable again?

a) Garbage collection
b) Stack
c) Heap
d) Fragmentation


Question 31

In a two-layer client/server system that uses a relational database, which of the following sends an SQL message when a stored procedure is not used?

a) Application server
b) Client
c) Client and application server
d) Database server


Question 32

Which of the following is suitable as a description of a duplex system?

a) A duplex system consists of two computer systems. Normally, one of these systems is used as an online system, while the other is used as a standby system for batch processing, development work, and the like.
b) A duplex system has higher reliability than a dual system, but is expensive.
c) A duplex system has redundant hardware, and the same data is processed in parallel by two processing systems, the results of which are collated at fixed time intervals.
d) In a duplex system, two CPUs share main memory and external storage devices, and operate on a single OS. Processes are handled in parallel by each CPU, and the load is controlled so that it can be distributed.


Question 33

Two branches, each of which has one automatic teller machine, are to be integrated. One automatic teller machine is to be installed at the integrated branch. Which of the following formulas determines the average waiting time for the automatic teller machine after integration? In this example, the waiting time is based on the M/M/1 queuing model, and the average waiting time does not include the service time.

(1) Average service time: Ts
(2) System utilization before integration: ρ for both branches
(3) The number of users after the integration is the total number of users of the two branches before the integration.

1 ×Ts b
ρ ×Ts c
1 ×Ts d
1-ρ 1-ρ 1-2ρ 1-2ρ


Question 34

The measurement results shown below were obtained when a certain SQL statement was processed. Based on the results, it seems there is some waiting for resources. What is the total waiting time in seconds? In this example, communication/processing time can be ignored.

CPU time 200 milliseconds
Response time 35.0 seconds
Physical I/O processing 400 operations
Average disk access time per physical
I/O processing
15 milliseconds
(including search time)
Logical I/O processing 2,000 operations

a) 4.8
b) 6.2
c) 28.8
d) 29.0


Question 35

Which of the following is suitable as a description of computer performance evaluation?

a) With TPC, a major benchmark for online transaction processing, the measure of performance is TPS, which is objective. However, it lacks a measure of cost.
b) Dhrystone, Whetstone, Livermore Fortran Kernel, Linpack, SPEC, and the like are used as overall computer system performance benchmarks.
c) The use of multiple types of benchmarks for performance evaluation is effective for purposes such as selecting models to be installed, since the benchmark results can be used to understand system characteristics.
d) Benchmark programs are models of user programs from a system design perspective. Their results can be widely applied to models of computer performance from the user’s perspective.


Question 36

Which of the following is suitable as a description of the problems and solutions for improving the performance of a system that uses relational databases?

a) When an SQL statement was executed, a full search occurred along the access path to which an index could not be used. Therefore, the database was re-organized.
b) I/O waiting time increased due to concentrated accesses, so the database was partitioned into multiple disks.
c) It was found that accessing was concentrated only to certain specific rows. Therefore, the index was re-set.
d) The amount of data placed in an overflow area increased due to updates and additions during operation over an extended time period. Therefore, the block size was reduced.


Question 37

What is the operation rate of a parallel system consisting of the two devices shown in the diagram below? In this example, if one of the devices is operating, then the system is considered as operating. On both devices A and B, the MTBF (mean time between failures) is 576 hours, and the MTTR (mean time to recovery) is 24 hours.


a) 0.9216
b) 0.96
c) 0.9872
d) 0.9984